1. If a vitamin solution contains 0.5 mg of fluoride ion in each milliliter, then how many milligrams of fluoride ion would be provided by a dropper that delivers 0.6 ml?

a. 0.3 mg

b. 0.1 mg

c. 1 mg

d. 0.83 mg

2. How many chloramphenicol capsules, each containing 250 mg, are needed to provide 25 mg per kg per day for 7 days for a person weighing 200 lb?

a. 90 capsules

b. 64 capsules

c. 13 capsules

d. 25 capsules

3. If 3.17 kg of a drug are used to make 50.000 tablets, how many milligrams will 30 tablets contain?

a. 1.9 mg

b. 1900 mg

c. 0.0019 mg

d. 3.2 mg

4. Using the formula for calamine lotion, determine the amount of calamine (in grams) necessary to prepare 240 ml of lotion.

Calamine 80 g

Zinc oxide 80 g

Glycerin 20 ml

Bentonite magma 250 ml

Calcium hydroxide topical solution, a sufficient quantity to make 1000 ml.

a. 19.2 g

b. 140 g

c. 100 g

d. 24 g

5. How many grams of aspirin should be used to prepare 1.255 kg of the powder?

ASA 6 parts

Phenacetin 3 parts

Caffeine 1 part

a. 125 g

b. 750 g

c. 175 g

d. 360 g

6. The atropine sulfate is available only in the form of 1/150 gr tablets. How many atropine sulfate tablets would you use to compound the prescription?

Atropine sulfate gr 1/200

Codeine phosphate gr ¼

Aspirin gr 5

d.t.d. # 24 caps

sig: cap 1 prn

a. 3 tablets

b. 6 tablets

c. 12 tablets

d. 18 tablets

7. In 25.0 ml of a solution for injection, there are 4.00 mg of the drug. If the dose to be administered to a patient is 200 μg, what quantity (in milliliters) of this solution should be used?

a. 1.25 ml

b. 125ml

c. 12.0 ml

d. None of the above.

8. How many milligrams of papaverine will the patient receive each day?

Rx Papaverine hydrochloride 1.0 g

Aqua 30.0 ml

Syrup tolu qs ad 90.0 ml

Sig: One tsp. t.i.d.

a. 56 mg

b. 5.6 mg

c. 166 mg

d. 2.5 mg

9. How many milliliters of a 0.9% aqueous solution can be made from 20.0 g of sodium chloride?

a. 2222 ml

b. 100 ml

c. 222 ml

d. 122 ml.

10. The blood of a reckless driver contains 0.1% alcohol. Express the concentration of a alcohol in parts per million.

a. 100 ppm

b. 1000 ppm

c. 1 ppm

d. 250 ppm

11. Syrup is an 85% w/v solution of sucrose in water. It has a density of 1.313 g/ml. How many milliliters of water should be used to make 125 ml of syrup?

a. 106.25 ml

b. 164.1 ml

c. 57.9 ml

d. 25.0 ml

12. How many grams of menthol should be used to prepare this prescription?

Rx Menthol 0.8 %

Alcohol qs ad 60.0 ml

a. 0.48 g

b. 0.8 g

c. 4.8 g

d. 1.48 g

13. How many milliliters of a 1 to 1500 solution can be made by dissolving 4.8 g of cetylpyridinium chloride in water?

a. 7200 ml

b. 7.2 ml

c. 48 ml

d. 4.8 ml

14. How many milliosmoles of calcium chloride (CaCl2 . 2H2O – mol wt =147) are represented in 147 ml of a 10% w/v calcium chloride solution?

a. 100 mOsmol

b. 200 mOsmol

c. 300 mOsmol

d. 3 mOsmol

Questions (15-18)

Five ibuprofen tablets where assayed for drug content & the following result obtianed by HPLC analysis: 198.2, 199.7, 202.5, 201.3, 196.4 mg

15. What is the mean ibuprofen content?

a. 196.9 mg

b. 200.2 mg

c. 199.6 mg

d. 249.5 mg

e. 202.5 mg

16. What is the standard deviation of ibuprofen content in the analyzed tablets?

a. 2.17 mg

b. 3.35 mg

c. 2.42

d. 3.00 mg

e. -2.17 mg

17. What is the percent relative standard deviation (%RSD) for this ibuprofen tablet analysis?

a. 1.69%

b. 1.21%

c. 8.25%

d. 3.35%

e. 1.50%

18. What is the standard deviation of the mean drug content of this sample?

a. 0.480 mg

b. 0.605 mg

c. 1.21 mg

d. 1.08 mg

e. 0.82 mg

19. Which substance is classified as a weak electrolyte?

a. Glucose

b. Urea

c. Ephedrine

d. Sodium chloride

e. Sucrose

20. The pH value is calculated mathematically as the:

a. Log of the hydroxyl ion(OH-) concentration

b. Negative log of the OH- concentration

c. Log of the hydrogen ion (H+) concentration

d. Negative log of the H+ concentration

e. Ratio of H+/OH- concentration

21. Which mechanism is most often responsible for chemical degradation?

a. Racemization

b. Photolysis

c. Hydrolysis

d. Decarboxylation

e. Oxidation

22. Which compound is a natural emulsifying agent?

a. Acacia

b. Lactose

c. Polysorbate 20

d. Polysorbate 80

e. Sorbitan monopalmitate.

23. Rectal suppositories intended for adult use usually weight approximately

a. 1 g

b. 2 g

c. 3 g

d. 4 g

e. 5 g

24. In the fusion method of making cocoa butter suppositories, which substance is most likely to be used to lubricate the mold?

a. Mineral Oil

b. Propylene glycol

c. Cetyl alcohol

d. Stearic acid

e. Magnesium silicate

25. Which capsule size has the smallest capacity?

a. 5

b. 4

c. 1

d. 0

e. 000

26. The shells of soft gelatin capsules may be made elastic or plastic – like the addition of:

a. Sorbitol

b. Povidone

c. Polyethylene glycol (OEG)

d. Lactose

e. Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose.

27. A satisfactory suppository base must meet all of the following criteria EXEPT:

a. It should have a narrow melting range

b. It should be nonirritating and nonsensitizing

c. It should dissolve or disintegrate rapidly in the body cavity.

d. It should melt below 30ºC

e. It should be inert.

28. The route of drug administration that gives the most rapid onset of the pharmacologic effect is:

a. Intramuscular injection

b. Intravenous injection

c. Intradermal injection

d. Peroral administration

e. Subcutaneous injection

29. The rout of drug administration that provides complete (100%) bioaviolability is:

a. Intramuscular injection

b. Intravenous injection

c. Intradermal injection

d. Peroral administration

e. Subcutaneous injection

30. After peroral administration, drugs generally are absorbed best from the:

a. Buccal cavity

b. Stomach

c. Duodenum

d. Ileum

e. Rectum

31. The passage of drug molecules form a region of high drug concentration to region of low drug concentration is known as:

a. Active transport

b. Bioavailability

c. Biopharmaceutics

d. Simple diffusion

e. Pioncytosis

32. Which condition usually increases the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?

a. Increase in the particle size of the drug

b. Decrease in the surface area of the drug

c. Use of the free acid or free base form of the drug

d. Use of the ioinzed, or salt, form of the drug

e. Use of sugar coating around the tablet.

33. The extent of ionization of a weak electrolyte drug is dependent on the:

a. pH of the media and pKa of drug

b. Oil water partition coefficient of the drug

c. Particle size and surface area of the drug

d. Noyes-whiteny equation for the drug

e. Polymorphic form of the drug

34. The rate of drug bioavailability is most rapid when the drug is formulated as a

a. Controlled – release product

b. Hard gelatin capsule

c. Compressed tablet

d. Solution

e. Suspension

35. The amount of drug that a transdermal patch (i.e., transdermal drug delivery system) delivers within a 24-hour period depends on the

a. Patch composition that includes on occlusive backing and an adhesive film in contact with the skin

b. Affinity of the drug for the formulation matrix relative to its affinity for the stratum cornum

c. Rate of drug partitioning and/or diffusion through the patch to the skin surface

d. Surface area of the patch

e. All of the above

36. Monomer units of proteins are known as

a. Monosaccharides

b. Prosthetic groups

c. Amino acids

d. Purins

e. Nucleosides

37. Glucose is a carbohydrate that cannot be hydrolyzed into a simpler substance. It is best described as

a. A sugar

b. A monosaccharide

c. A disaccharide

d. A polysaccharide

e. An oligosaccharide

38. All of the following carbohydrates are considered to be polysaccharides EXCEPT:

a. Heparin

b. Starch

c. Glycogen

d. Maltose

e. Cellulose

39. Which of the following compounds are considered the building blocks of nucleic acids?

a. Nucleotides

b. Nucleosides

c. Monosaccharides

d. Purines

e. Amino acids

40. Enzyme that uncouple peptide linkages are best classified as

a. Hydrolases

b. Ligases

c. Oxidoreductases

d. Transferases

e. Isomerases

41. Gamma immunoglobulin is considered

a. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)

b. Ribonucleic acid (RNA)

c. A protein

d. None of the above

42. Glycoprotein is considered a protein linked to

a. A carbohydrate

b. A hormone

c. A lipid

d. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)

e. None of the above

43. All of the following medicinal agents are classified as natural products EXCEPT:

a. Atropine

b. Diazepam

c. Digitoxin

d. Penicillin

e. Morphine

44. All of the following classes of drugs are used to treat hypertension EXCEPT:

a. Aryloxypropanolamines

b. Thiazides

c. Fibrates

d. Dihydropyridines

e. Angiotensin – converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors.

45. Which of the following drugs is considered to be the agent of choice for anaphylactic reactions?

a. Clonidine

b. Isoproterenol

c. Epinephrine

d. Phenylephrine

e. Terbutaline

46. Which of the following agents would NOT be appropriate in the treatment of glaucoma?

a. Atropine

b. Pilocarpine

c. Physostigmine

d. Timolol

e. Epinephrine

47. Adverse reactions to atropine include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Photophobia

b. Dry mouth

c. Sedation

d. Diarrhea

e. Tachycardia

48. Opioids are used as all of the following agents EXCEPT:

a. Antitussives

b. Analgesics

c. Anti-inflammatories

d. Antidiarrheals

e. Preanesthetic medications

49. Ingestion of which of the following vitamins should be avoided by patient taking an oral anticogulant?

a. Vitamin A

b. Vitamin B

c. Vitamin D

d. Vitamin E

e. Vitamin K

50. All of the following substances are endogenous tropic hormones secreted by the pituitary gland EXCEPT:

a. Somatotropin

b. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)

c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

d. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

e. Adrenocoticotropic hormone (ACTH)

51. Which of the following substances when present in urine is the most likely positive sign of pregnancy?

a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

b. Corticotropin (ACTH)

c. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)

d. Interstitial cell-stimulating hormone (ICSH)

e. Protamine zinc insulin (PZI)

52. Which of the following glucocorticoids produces the least sodium retention?

a. Cortisone

b. Hydrocortisone

c. Prednisolone

d. Dexamethasone

e. Fludrocortisone

53. Which of the following insulins can be administered intravenously?

a. Regular insulin

b. Isophane insulin (NPH)

c. Protamine zinc insulin (PZI)

d. Semilente insulin

e. Ultralente insulin

54. What is the most important focus of pharmaceutical care?

a. The pharmacist

b. The patient

c. The prescription

d. The patient chart

55. Parenteral calcium is used as an antidote for which of the following situations?

a. Verapamil overdose

b. Hyperkalemia

c. Cocaine intoxication

d. Verapamil overdose and hyperkalemia

56. The following information should be recorded on a prescription EXCEPT the:

a. Prescription number

b. Date of filling

c. Expiration date

d. Product and quantity dispensed

e. Pharmacist’s initials

57. A prescription label should contain all of the following EXCEPT the:

a. Quantity dispensed

b. Lot number

c. Patient’s diagnosis

d. Expiration date

e. Prescriber’s name

58. Intra – articular injection refers to injection into the:

a. Muscle mass

b. Subcutaneous tissue

c. Spinal fluid

d. Superficial skin layer

e. Joint space

59. Advantages of the intravenous route include:

a. Ease of removal of the dose

b. A dept effect

c. Low incidence of phlebitis

d. Rapid onset of action

e. A localized effect

60. A product that delivers moisture to the air by heating water to produce steam is called a:

a. Nebulizer

b. Humidifier

c. Ventilator

d. Peak flow meter

e. Vaporizer

61. Pregnancy test kits are designed to detect which substance?

a. Luteinizing hormone (LH)

b. Progesterone

c. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)

d. Estrogen

e. Follicle-stimulating hormone

62. Ophthalmic agents contraindicated in glaucoma patients include which of the following substances?

a. Antioxidants

b. Antipruritics

c. Decongestnats

d. Emollients

63. The most common cause of vaginal yeast infections is:

a. Candida albicans

b. Candida glabrata

c. Trichomonas

d. Anaerobic bacteria

64. Which of the following patients complaining of vaginal yeast infection symptoms should be referred to a physician?

a. If there is a history of recurrent vaginal yeast infection

b. If she is pregnant

c. If she is less than 12-years of age

d. All of the above

65. A 65 year-old is interested in taking ginkgo. Which of the following statements is correct regarding ginkgo?

a. Ginkgo is contraindicated in diabetes and pregnancy.

b. There is a drug-herb interaction between ginkgo and aspirin

c. Toxic effects include hypertension and cardiac arrest.

d. There is a drug – herb interaction between ginkgo an phenelzine

e. Ginkgo is contraindicated in patients with gallstone pain.

66. All of the following medications should NOT be used routinely in pregnant patients during the third trimester EXCEPT:

a. Acetaminophen

b. Nonsteroidal anti – inflammatory drugs

c. Warfarin

d. Lithium

e. Aspirin

67. Which of the following medications may have the potential to cause falls in a geriatric patient?

a. Amitriptyline

b. Trazodone

c. Acetaminophen with codeine

d. Diazepam

e. All of the above

68. All of the following are taken into account when calculating dosage for children EXCEPT:

a. Height

b. Weight

c. Hepatic and renal function

d. Age

e. Body surface area

69. All of the following drugs may enhance breast milk production by increasing prolactin levels EXCEPT:

a. Haloperidol

b. Methyldopa

c. Metoclopramide

d. Bromocriptine

e. Theophylline

70. Which of the following drugs is expected to cause anticholinergic adverse effects in the elderly?

a. Propoxyphene

b. Ciprofloxacin

c. Amitriptyline

d. Propranolol

e. Cimetidine

71. Which of the following antihypertensive agents should be avoided in elderly patients?

a. Amlodipine 5 mg every day

b. Atenolol 25 mg every day

c. Benazepril 10 mg every day

d. Hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg every day

e. Methyldopa 250 mg three times a day

72. Which of the following benzodiazepines is expected to cause the LEAST amount of adverse effects in the elderly?

a. Chloridiazepoxide

b. Diazepam

c. Flurazepam

d. Oxazepam

e. Temazepam

73. Which of the following factors is associated with an increased risk of noncompliance in the elderly?

a. Polypharmacy

b. Hypertension

c. Male gender

d. Living with a spouse in an isolated environment

e. Expensive medications

74. Myopathy is an adverse effect of all the following agents EXCEPT:

a. Lovastatin

b. Simvastatin

c. Pravastatin

d. Gemfibrozil

e. Colestipol

75. Which of the following agents represents a relatively new class of drugs used in treating hypertension?

a. Trandolapril

b. Carvedilol

c. Irbesartan

d. Moexipril

e. Nitrendipine

76. Reflex tachycardia, headache, and postural hypotension are adverse effects that limit the use of which of the following antihypertensive agents?

a. Prazosin

b. Captopril

c. Methyldopa

d. Guanethidine

e. Hydralazine

77. Long standing hypertension leads to tissue damage in all of the following organs EXCEPT the:

a. Heart

b. Lungs

c. Kidneys

d. Brain

e. Eyes

78. Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that:

a. Requires pyridoxine supplementation

b. May discolor the tears, saliva, urine, or feces orange –red.

c. Causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drugs is discontinued.

d. May be ototoxic and nephrotoxic

e. Should never be used to hepatotoxic potential

 

79. Spectionomycin is an aminoglycoside – like antibiotic indicated for the treatment of:

a. Gram – negative bacillary septicemia

b. Tuberculosis

c. Penicillin – resistant gonococcal infections

d. Syphilis

e. Gram – negative meningitis due to susceptible organisms.

80. A woman has an upper respiratory infection. Six years ago, she experienced an episode of bronchospasm following penicillin V therapy. The cultures now reveal a strain of streptococcus pneumoniae that is sensitive to all of the following drugs. Which of these drugs would be the best choice of this patient?

a. Amoxicillin/clavulanate

b. Erythtomycin

c. Ampicillin

d. Cefaclor

e. Cyclacillin

81. All of the following drugs are suitable oral therapy for a lower urinary tract infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa EXCEPT:

a. Norfloxacin

b. Timethorprim-sulfamethoxazole

c. Ciprofloxacin

d. Carbenicillin

e. Methenamine mandelate

82. Which of the following anticonvulsants is contraindicated in patients with a history of hypersensitivity to tricyclic antidepressants?

a. Phenytoin

b. Ethosuximide

c. Acetazolmide

d. Carbasmazepine

e. Phenobarbital

83. What are the most common adverse effects of anticonvulsive drugs?

a. Headache and dizziness

b. Gastrointestinal symptoms

c. Alternation of cognition and mentation

d. Adverse effects on appetite and body weight

e. All of the above.

84. Which of the following mood stabilizers would be most appropriate in a patient with liver disease?

a. Lithium

b. Valproic acid

c. Carbamazepine

d. None of the above

85. In the emergency department, the preferred first-line therapy for asthma exacerbation is:

a. Theophyline

b. A β-agonist

c. A corticosteroid

d. Cormolyn sodium

e. An antihistamine

86. Current criteria used in the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus (DM) include all of the following symptoms EXCEPT:

a. Fasting hyperglycemia

b. Polyuria

c. Polydipsia

d. Tinnitus

e. Weight loss

87. The most useful glucose test used in monitoring diabetes mellitus (DM) therapy is:

a. Urine monitoring

b. Blood monitoring

c. Renal function monitoring

d. Cardiovascular monitoring

e. Vascular monitoring

88. Patient taking chlorpropamide should avoid products counting:

a. Acetaminophen

b. Ethanol

c. Vitamin A

d. Penicillin

e. Milk products

 

89. Potential adverse effects associated with aspirin include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Gastrointestinal ulceration

b. Renal dysfunction

c. Enhanced methotrexate toxicity

d. Cardiac arrhythmias

e. Hypersensitivity asthma

90. All of the following facts are true about non- steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

a. They are antipyretic

b. There is a ceiling effect to their analgesia

c. They can cause tolerance

d. They do not cause dependence

e. They are anti-inflammatory

91. Which of the following narcotics has the longest duration of effect?

a. Methadone

b. Controlled-release morphine

c. Levorphanol

d. Trasdermal fentanyl

e. Diydromorphone

92. Potassium supplementation is contraindicated in patients using:

a. Chlorthalidone

b. Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)

c. Furosemide

d. Triamterene

e. Ethacrynic acid

93. Which risk factor is most likely to predispose this patient to the complications of peptic ulcer disease?

a. Smoking

b. Race

c. Age

d. Sex

e. Helicobacter pylori status

94. Which drug is most likely to cause tremor?

a. Atrovent

b. Terbutaline

c. Mandol

d. Nicotinic acid

e. Amoxil

95. Which sign or symptom reflects a vitamin K deficiency?

a. Dementia

b. Bleeding

c. Depression

d. Dermatitis

e. Diarrhea

96. Calcium is available for oral administration in all of the following salt forms EXCEPT:

a. Chloride

b. Lactate

c. Gluconate

d. Phosphate

e. Carbonate

 

97. Emulsions made with tweens are usually

a. Unstable

b. w/o

c. o/w

d. Clear

e. Reversible

98. Lidocaine HCl is NOT administered orally because is :

a. Ineffective by this route

b. Too acidic

c. Too toxic by this rout

d. A cause if arrhythmias

e. Unstable

99. A source of anticarcinogenic drugs is

a. Belladonna

b. Nux vomica

c. Vinca rosea

d. Cascara

e. Digitalis

100. Pharmacists should caution patients who are taking niacin that this drug:

a. Stains the urine bright red

b. Causes ringing in the ears

c. Causes muscular weakness

d. Should be taken before meals

e. Should be taken with meals

 

101. An IV order requires 5 million units of sodium penicillin G to be added to 1 L of normal saline. How many mEq of sodium are available per liter of solution?

a. 154.0 mEq

b. 1540.0 mEq

c. 8.4 mEq

d. 162.0 mEq

e. 1620.0 mEq

102. An order calls for 500 cc of a solution of potassium sulfate to be made so that it contains 10 mEq of K+. How many grams of potassium sulfate are required?

a. 0.440 g

b. 4.440 g

c. 0.044 g

d. 0.870 g

e. 8.700 g

103. How many milliliters of a 10% KCl (MW 74.6) solution contain 5.0 mEq of K+?

a. 2.100 mL

b. 21.000 mL

c. 3.730 mL

d. 37.300 mL

e. 0.373 mL

104. Most drugs are

a. Strong electrolytes

b. Weak electrolytes

c. Non electrolytes

d. Highly ionic

e. None of the above

105. Calculate the weight of 25 mL of hydrochloric acid whose density is 1.18 g/mL.

a. 29.500 g

b. 2.950 g

c. 0.295 g

d. 295.00 g

e. None of the above

106. An antidot for heparin over dosage is

a. Protamine sulfate

b. BAL

c. Atropine

d. Calcium salts

e. Dicumarol

107. Which of the following may be used as plasma expanders?

a. Sodium salts

b. Dextrans

c. Starches

d. Calcium salts

e. Prostaglandins

108. The expression “ppm” as used in compounding prescriptions most often is defined as:

a. Parts per million

b. Parts per ml

c. Parts per mole

d. Pieces per million

e. Parts per molar

109. GMP regulations (USFDA) primarily apply to:

a. Controlled drugs

b. Wholesalers

c. Pharmaceutical manufacturers

d. Hospital pharmacy

e. Community pharmacy

110. Salicylic acid is used primarily as a (an):

a. Analgesic

b. Antipyretic

c. Cough suppressant

d. Uricosuric agent

e. Keratolytic agent

111. Pyridoxine is:

a. Vitamin B6

b. Vitamin A

c. Vitamin B1

d. Vitamin K

e. Vitamin D

112. One tablespoon is approximately equivalent to:

a. 15 ml

b. 10 ml

c. 8 ml

d. 20 ml

e. 30 ml

113. Freeze drying is based on

a. Pressure filtration

b. Sublimation

c. Polymerization

d. Pasteurization

e. Densification

114. Gums are used in tabletting primarily as:

a. Disintegrators

b. Glidants

c. Lubricants

d. Binding agents

e. Impossible

115. Reaction rate is increased most readily by:

a. Humidity

b. High temperature

c. Freezing

d. Photolysis

e. Hydrolysis

 

116. Glucose is NOT subject to hydrolysis because it is:

a. A disaccharide

b. A monosaccharide

c. A polysaccharide

d. Insoluble

e. Both B and C

117. Ferritin is a (an):

a. Vitamin

b. Micelle

c. Emulsion

d. Amino acid

e. Protein

118. Vitamin B6 is also known as:

a. Thiamine

b. Riboflavin

c. Niacin

d. Pyridoxine

e. Cyanocobalamin

119. Which of the following is classified as fat soluble?

a. Vitamin D

b. Niacin

c. Ascorbic acid

d. Thiamine hydrochloride

e. Riboflavin

120. Bismuth subsalicylate is used in antidiarrheals for its

a. Hydrophobic action

b. Hydrophilic action

c. Adsorbent action

d. Absorbent action

e. Antibacterial action

121. Which if the following is a cationic emulsifying agent?

a. Potassium laurate

b. Calcium oleate

c. Sodiumm lauryl sulfate

d. Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide

e. Ammonium laurate

122. Cocoa butter (theobroma oil) is useful as a suppository base because of its:

a. Solubility

b. Melting point

c. Miscibility

d. Reactivity

e. Lipophilic properties

123. The most widely used method for sterilization of pharmaceuticals is:

a. Microfiltration

b. Radiation

c. Ethylene oxide exposure

d. Moist heat

e. Dry heat

124. The type of instability known as “bleeding” is usually associated with:

a. Isotonic solutions

b. Emulsions

c. Alcoholic solutions

d. Ointments

e. Suspensions

125. Which of the following is associated with excessive infusion of hypotonic fluids?

a. Hemolysis

b. Hyperglycermia

c. Dehydration

d. Glycosuria

e. None of the above

126. Which of the following is associated with excessive infusion of hypertonic dextrose solutions?

a. Loss of electrolytes

b. Hyperglycemia

c. Dehydration

d. Glycosuria

e. All of the above

127. Normal rectal temperature is usually

a. Measured in the morning

b. Measured in the evening

c. About the same as the normal oral temperature

d. About 1o lower than oral

e. About 1o higher than oral

128. Prednisone is converted to which of the following by the liver?

a. Cortisone

b. Hydrocortisone prednisolone

c. Prednisolone

d. Methylprednisolone

e. Dexamethasone

129. The dose of a drug is 5 mg/kg body weight. What dose should be given to 110-lb female patient?

a. 2500 mg

b. 250 mg

c. 25 mg

d. 44 mg

e. 440 mg

130. An ointment is prepared by incorporating 10 g of a drug into 100 g of white petrolatum. What is the percent w/w of active ingredient?

a. 10.00%

b. 9.10%

c. 0.91%

d. 0.95%

e. None of the above

131. The principle use of magnesium strearate in pharmaceutical is as a (an):

a. Lubricant

b. Antacid

c. Source of Mg ion

d. Disintegrator

e. Binder

132. A synonym for vitamin C is

a. Riboflavin

b. Tocopherol

c. Ascorbic acid

d. Cyanocobalamin

e. Thiamine

133. Activated charcoal is used in some antidotes because of which of its properties?

a. Neutralizing

b. Emetic

c. Absorptive

d. Adsorptive

e. stabilizing

134. Another name for extended insulin zinc suspension is

a. NPH

b. Lente

c. Ultralente

d. Regular

e. Non of the above

135. The recommended method of mixing insulins is to

a. Shake vigorously

b. Mix gently by rolling between palms of hands

c. Add simultaneously to container

d. Add lente insulin first then regular insulin

e. None of the above

 

136. Which of the following is NOT used as a vehicle for injections?

a. Peanut oil

b. Cottonseed oil

c. Corn oil

d. Theobroma oil

e. Sesame oil

137. Which of the following agents is associated with tinnitus as a result of toxicity?

a. Salicylate

b. Phenytoin

c. Propranolol

d. Acetaminophen

e. Cyclobenzaprine

138. The greatest threat from morphine poisoning is

a. Renal shutdown

b. Paralysis of spinal cord

c. Respiratory depression

d. Cardiovascular collapse

e. None of the above

139. A specific narcotic antagonist is

a. Meperidine

b. Polybrene

c. Nalorphine

d. Universal antidote

e. Meprobamate

140. Which of the following is used to curtail chronic uric acid stone formation?

a. Allopurinol

b. Trimethoprim

c. Methenamine

d. Ethacrynic acid

e. Furosemide

141. Which of the following is used to lower blood lipid levels?

a. Trimethadione

b. Colesevelam

c. Flucytosine

d. Coumarin

e. Proparanolol

142. Therapeutically, vitamin B1 has been used most successfully in the treatment of:

a. Microcytic anemia

b. Pellagra

c. Scurvy

d. Beriberi

e. Macrocytic anemia

143. A class of plant alkaloids widely used to treat migraine is

a. Vinca alkaloids

b. Digitalis glycosides

c. Stramonium alkaloids

d. Ergot alkaloids

e. Beladonna alkaloids

144. Cyclosporine is used for

a. Allergies

b. Angina

c. Prevention of transplant rejection

d. Steroid deficiency

e. Treating lead poisoning

145. An advantages of amoxicllin over ampiceller is that it

a. Is more acid stable

b. Is not destroyed by penicillinase

c. Has a broader spectrum

d. Dose not cause allergies

e. Has a longer shelf life

146. Minocycline hydrochloride is a member of which class of anti-infectives?

a. Cephalosporin

b. Penicillin

c. Aminoglycoside

d. Tetracycline

e. Sulfonamide

147. All of the following are diuretics EXCEPT:

a. Aminophlline

b. Glyburide

c. Spironolactone

d. Bumetamide

e. Chlorthalidone

148. Which of the following action(s) is produced by lorazepam

a. Sedation

b. Loss of memory

c. Reduction of anxiety

d. All of the above

e. none of the above

149. Celecoxib is used as a (an)

a. Antimalarial

b. Cardiotonic

c. Antihistaminic

d. Antacid

e. Analgesic

150. Which of the following drugs has been associated with Reye’s syndrome in children?

a. Aspirin

b. Acetaminophen

c. Ibuprofen

d. Naproxen

e. Phenobarbital

151. Hyoscyamine has the same action as atropine but is

a. Twice as potent

b. Three times more potent

c. Ten time more potent

d. Half as potent

e. One-fourth as potent

152. The principle mechanism of action of penicillin’s on microorganisms is

a. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

b. Destruction of the nucleus

c. Bacteriostatic

d. Causing mutations

e. Lysis

153. Epinephrine is NOT given orally because

a. It is inactivated in the gastric mucosa

b. Local vasoconstriction inhibits absorption

c. It is rapidly inactivated in circulation

d. None of the above

e. All of the above

154. Which of the following is classified as a cholinergic antagonist?

a. Acetylcholine

b. Neostigmine

c. Atropine

d. Bethanecol

e. Methacholine

155. The action of heparin is terminated by:

a. Coumarin

b. Indanediones

c. Insulins

d. Sulfonamides

e. Protamine sulfate

156. Nitroglycerin has a relatively short half-life due to:

a. Its volatility

b. Its chemical instability

c. Its poor absorption

d. First-pass metabolism

e. All of the above

157. The prevalent mechanism of action of antihistaminic is that they:

a. Prevent formation of histamine

b. Speed up elimination of histamine

c. Destroy histamine

d. Competitively inhibit histamine

e. Speed up biotransformation of histamine

158. The most effective substance in treating acute attacks of gout is

a. Allopurinol

b. Probenecid

c. Aspirin

d. Para-aminobenzoic acid

e. Colchicine

159. Beta-interferon is used to treat:

a. Adult-onset diabetes

b. Hypertension

c. Cardiac insufficiency

d. Multiple sclerosis

e. Ulcers

160. Candesartan is used as a (an)

a. Diuretic

b. Antihypertensive

c. Hypnotic

d. Sedative

e. Antidepressant

161. Oflaxacin is classified as a (an)

a. Antifungal

b. Antiviral

c. Broad-spectrum antibiotic

d. Narrow-spectrum antibiotic

e. Antirickettsial

162. Gentamicin exhibits

a. Significant hepatotoxicity

b. Significant cardiotoxicity

c. Significant dermal toxicity

d. Significant nephrotoxicity

e. All of the above

163. A drug that is useful in treating potentially fatal fungal infections is:

a. Nystatin

b. Propionic acid

c. Amphotericin B

d. Nystatin

e. Griseofulvin

164. An advantage of dextromethorphan over codeine as an antitussive is that it:

a. Is twice as effective

b. Is more stable

c. Has no side effects

d. Produces very little depression of the CNS

e. Has better analgesic properties

165. Streptokinase is used to

a. Dissolve blood clots

b. Treat digestive disorders

c. Promote carbohydrate degradation

d. Treat muscle injuries

e. Replace pepsin

166. Gold compounds have been used to treat:

a. Worm infestation

b. Ulcers

c. Kidney failure

d. Rheumatoid arthritis

e. Psoriasis

167. The anti-inflammatory action of aspirin is due to:

a. Analgesia

b. Inhibition of clotting

c. Antipyretic effect

d. Degradation of prostaglandins

e. Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis

168. Caster oil is classified as which type of laxative?

a. Lubricating laxatine

b. Anthraquinone laxatine

c. Irritant laxatine

d. Stool softening laxatine

e. Bulk producing laxatine

169. Which of the following drugs may interact with digoxin?

a. Quinidine

b. Antacids

c. Cholestyramine

d. A and B

e. A, B, and C

170. Most food poisoning is caused by a species of:

a. Typhus

b. Salmonella

c. Shigella

d. Tetanus

e. Pasteurella

171. In young children, tetracyclines often cause

a. Agranulocytosis

b. Discoloration of teeth

c. Conjunctivitis

d. Muscular weakness

e. Hyperplasia of the gums

172. Immunization against measles usually employs

a. A measles toxoid

b. Gamma globulin

c. A live attenuated virus

d. Live bacteria

e. Attenuated rickettsia

173. The mechanism of dry heat sterilization is primarily

a. Oxidation

b. Reduction

c. Coagulation

d. Denaturation

e. None of the above

174. An antibody is chemically

a. A protein

b. A polysaccharide

c. An amino acid

d. Any foreign substance in the body

e. None of the above

175. A bacteriostatic agent has which of the following effects on bacteria?

a. It kills bacteria on contact

b. It enhances their growth

c. It induces spore formation

d. It inhibits multiplication of bacteria

e. It dehydrates bacteria

176. Salmonellosis is usually transmitted by

a. Mosquitoes

b. Fleas

c. Animal bites

d. Contaminated food or drink

e. Bats

177. Haemophilus influenzae meningitis occurs in

a. The elderly

b. Teenagers

c. Young children

d. Middle-aged adults

e. All age groups

178. The drug of choice for vaginal trichomoniasis in a non-pregnant woman is:

a. Norfloxacin

b. Co-trimoxazole

c. Metronidazole

d. Amoxicillin

e. None of the above

179. Which of the following is the most prevalent immune globulin in the body?

a. IgG

b. IgA

c. IgM

d. IgE

e. IgD

180. The respiratory center is located in the

a. Cerebrum

b. Cerebellum

c. Hypothalamus

d. Medulla

e. Pons

181. Amenorrhea may be defined as:

a. Painful menstruation

b. Premenstrual symdrome

c. Impotence

d. Absence of menstruation

e. Cystic acne

182. What type of anemia is caused by iron deficiency?

a. Macrocytic, hypochromic

b. Microcytic, normochromic

c. Macrocytic

d. Normochromic, normocytic

e. Microcytic, hypochromic

183. In young adults, normal blood pressure is

a. 100/60

b. 80/80

c. 140/90

d. 120/120

e. 120/80

184. Henle’s loop is found in the

a. Liver

b. Stomach

c. Intestine

d. Kidney

e. Inner ear

185. Antidiuretic hormone is secreted from

a. The kidney cortex

b. The kidney medulla

c. The anterior pituitary

d. The posterior pituitary

e. None of the above

186. An endocrine gland that plays an important role in calcium metabolism is the

a. Pancreas

b. Hypophysis

c. Thyroid

d. Parathyroid

e. Gonads

187. The uppermost portion of the intestine is the

a. Cecum

b. Jejunum

c. Ileum

d. Duodenum

e. Colon

188. The pigment that gives the urine its color is:

a. Urochrome

b. Bilirubin

c. Biliverdin

d. Urobilin

e. None of the above

189. The neurotransmitter released at the end of sympathetic nerve fiber is:

a. Epinephrine

b. Norepinephrine

c. Acetylcholine

d. Acetlycholine esterase

e. Amine oxidase

190. Drugs that cause dilation of the pupil are:

a. Miotics

b. Mydriatics

c. Cycloplegics

d. Antispasmodics

e. Anorectics

191. The most common blood type is:

a. A

b. B

c. O

d. AB

e. X

192. The pacemaker of the heart is the

a. Coronary artery

b. Right ventricle

c. SA node

d. AV node

e. Left ventricle

193. The ion in highest concentration in the cells is:

a. Na

b. Mg

c. K

d. Ca

e. Fe

194. The ion in highest concentration outside the cells is:

a. Na

b. Mg

c. K

d. Ca

e. Fe

195. Bilirubin is produced by

a. Biosynthesis

b. The kidneys

c. Hemoglobin decomposition

d. Decomposition of the bile salts

e. The spleen

196. Secretion of adrenal cortical hormones is controlled primarily by:

a. Somatotropic hormone

b. Epinephrine

c. Glucagon

d. ACTH

e. ICSH

197. Sickle cell anemia is characterized by

a. Lack of iron

b. Lack of B12

c. Abnormally shaped red blood cells

d. Lack of folic acid

e. Megaloblastic red blood cells

198. Helicobacter pylori infection is associated with

a. Peptic ulcer disease

b. Pseudomembranous colitis

c. Otitis media

d. Crohn’s disease

e. Pyelonephtitis

 

199. Possible treatment of hypoglycemia dose NOT include

a. Insulin

b. Candy

c. Glucose

d. Fruit juice

e. Glucagon

200. Clauithromycin is classified as?

a. Aminoglycoisdes

b. Cephalosporins

c. Tetracyclines

d. Macrolide antibiotics

e. None of the above

201. The drug of choice in status epilepticus is

a. Carbamazepine 600 mg PO

b. Phenytion 50 mg IM

c. Phenobarbital 600 mg IM

d. Diazepam 10 mg IV

e. Diazepm 0.5 mg IV

202. One liter of 10% dextrose contains how much dextrose?

a. 1 g

b. 10 g

c. 100 g

d. 10 mg

e. 100 mg

203. Humulin insulin is derived from

a. Human donors

b. Beef

c. Enzymatic cleavage of porcine insulin

d. Recombination DNA technology

e. Filtration of bovine

204. The generic name for Prozac is

a. Fluoxetine

b. Sertraline

c. Paroxetine

d. Trazodone

e. Impiramine

205. Which of the following drugs is known NOT to interact with warfarin?

a. Acetylsalicylic acid

b. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

c. Rifampin

d. Diphenhydramine

e. Metronidazole

206. Warfarin is an anticoagulant. Its proposed mechanism of action is that it:

a. Inhibits platelet synthesis

b. Block prostaglandin synthesis

c. Prohibits absorption of vitamin K

d. Binds to fibrinogen

e. Inhibits synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors.

207. Which of the following agents would NOT be indicated for a patient with angina?

a. Iosorbide

b. Flecainide

c. Nifedinpine

d. Propranolol

e. Diltiazem

208. Which of the following is not a risk for the development of Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)?

a. Smoking

b. Hypertension

c. Hyperlipidemia

d. Family history

e. Gout

209. Which of the following are risk factors for the development of cardiovascular disease?

a. Diabetes mellitus

b. Smoking

c. Sex (men and postmenopausal women)

d. Only A and B

e. A, B, and C

210. Which of these medications is/are effective in the treatment of patients with panic disorder?

a. Paroxetine

b. Brofarmine

c. Imipramine

d. A and B

e. A, B, and C

211. Which of the following medications may results in a drug interaction with aminodarone?

a. Enalapril

b. Diagoxin

c. Aspirin

d. Albuterol

e. Azmacort

212. Which size commercial container should be chosen to complete the prescription?

a. 30 ml

b. 50 ml

c. 100 ml

d. 200 ml

e. 240 ml

213. A prescription for a controlled substance must be

a. Written in ink

b. Written in indelible pencil

c. Typewritten

d. Signed by the presciber in his or her own handwriting

e. All of the above

214. A fasting plasma glucose one more than greater than or equal to which of the following amounts confirms one occasions the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?

a. 115 mg/dl

b. 126 mg/dl

c. 135 mg/dl

d. 140 mg/dl

e. 156 mg/dl

215. In addition to exercise and diet modification, drug therapy is is warranted. Which of the following would be reasonable for initial monotherapy? Select the best answer

a. Glipizide

b. Glyburide

c. Glucagon

d. A and B only

e. A, B, and C

216. Which of the following agents may be administered rectally to manage subsequent seizures ?

a. Phenobarbital

b. Phenytion

c. Fosphenytion

d. Lamotrigine

e. Diazepam

217. Which of the following drugs is a folic acid antagonist and is considered teratogenic during the first trimester of pregnancy?

a. Nitrofurantion

b. Tetracycline

c. Trimethoprim – Sulphametapagole or co trimoxazol (TMP-SMX)

d. Gentamicin

e. Giprofloxacin

218. Which of the following would be the most appropriate therapy to reverse the acute bronchial obstruction?

a. Oral albuterol

b. Intravenous aminophylline

c. Nebulized albuterol

d. Intravenous hydrocortisone

e. Intravenous terbutaline